Did Jesus die for our sins?
The most common belief among Christians is the belief that
Jesus died for our sins, but the question is: Do we have a solid account
that proves this?
Actually when we look at the verses Christians use to prove this belief, we find that 95% of these verses are from Paul’s epistles, and the verses used to prove this belief from the Gospels are very few, which puts a question mark on its source and whether Jesus really told that he would die on the cross for our sins.
As I illustrated in my post :”Concept of salvation between Islam and Christianity“we as Muslims don’t need to believe that God needs to be a man or to be crucified for our sins, because God is mightier than that, we actually believe that this is a blasphemy and an insult against God. For sin to be forgiven by God, mans should repent faithfully to God, and acknowledge his sins, and God is the All Forgiver and All Merciful who will forgive him if He really knew he is really intending to repent and stop the sin:
110. And whoso does evil or wrongs his soul, and then asks forgiveness of ALLAH, will find ALLAH Most Forgiving, Merciful. ( Holy Quran 4:110)
No need for all that so that God forgives my sins, and this is what is also said by the Old Testament:
Eze 18:21″But if a wicked person turns away from all his sins that he has committed and keeps all my statutes and does what is just and right, he shall surely live; he shall not die.
Eze 18:22None of the transgressions that he has committed shall be remembered against him; for the righteousness that he has done he shall live.
Jesus (Peace be upon him) wasn’t clear in clarifying his supposed main message, something like this must have been very clear so that no one doubts, but even according to the Gospels, it seems that Jesus didn’t know about it, look at what he said:
Joh 17:4 I glorified thee on the earth, having accomplished the work which thou hast given me to do.
This was before crucifixion, Jesus tells that he accomplished the work God gave to him. This work is to tell people about God, as all prophets did. If he really knew that he came to die for our sins and the plan of salvation Christians talk about it, he won’t have said that he accomplished the work God gave him to do.
Not only that, but when Jesus was asked about the way to eternal life:
Mat 19:16 And behold, one came to him and said, Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why askest thou me concerning that which is good? One there is who is good: but if thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments.
Jesus’ answer was simply to keep the commandments which are the same commandments of the Old Testament, nothing new.
What about Jesus’ action before being crossed?
Mat 26:38 Then saith he unto them, My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death: abide ye here, and watch with me.
Mat 26:39 And he went forward a little, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass away from me: nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou wilt.
If this was really the reason why he came, would have he been that sad and sorrowful? Why would he keep on prayer and asks God to take that cup away from him? If Jesus was supposed to be waiting for that moment, why would he ask God to get it away?
Finally look at what he said on the cross:
Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Jesus accuses God that he left him, as if Jesus was surprised by this or that God betrayed him, is that logical? Doesn’t he know why he is there? Some might argue that this refers to Psalm 22, which Christians might argue that it foretells about the event on the cross. If this was the case, why didn’t Jesus refer to other verses that are strongly used by Christians either in this Psalm or in other verses like in Isaiah 53? This verse actually proves that Jesus didn’t know about the plan of salvation except that God has forsaken him.
Now let’s come to examine the verses used to prove that Jesus died for us, the first verse used is John 3:16, actually there is a doubt in referring this verse to Jesus, look at the TNIV version, the translators ended the quotation at John 3:15, and said in the footnotes that some interpreters put the quotation at 3:21, also you can see Robertson’s Word Picture, this means that there is a diversity concerning referring the most famous verse in the Bible to Jesus (Peace be upon him). This script whom Christians build their belief on. If Jesus was really God, and this was really the reason for his coming, he would have kept on declaring that clearly so that no one doubts in it, but he didn’t, only that verse and there is a diversity concerning who said it. And Where are the other Gospels? This critical belief should have agreed on through the Gospels. besides how would God give His son? And how would he save people? And save them from what? The verse didn’t say all that, and Jesus never answered these questions, Paul only did. All these questions are put supposing that Jesus really said so, but he really didn’t say so, and a belief must be built on a solid ground, otherwise it falls.
The second script used to prove this belief:
Mat 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Actually Jesus was pointing to wine saying this is his blood, and saying that it will be shed for the redemption of sins, but this refers to wine, and it may explain what the Catholic belief concerning saying that wine becomes Jesus’ blood and shedding the blood may refer back to the wine as it is what he refers to from the beginning.
Also there is another verseused to prove this is that one used, which is that Jesus predicted to suffer from the Pharisees and that he will be killed and raised from death, actually I don’t see a relation between this script and the belief that he’d die for us, it only tells that he’d die, but it didn’t say that this will be for our sins.
Something else used as a proof also is that they were giving sacrifices in the Old Testament for forgiving their sins, so Jesus was the sacrifice so that people don’t need to do that anymore, actually this is really weird, because if this was the case, then Christians must fulfill the laws of the Old Testament and leave only that law, but actually they neither obey that law nor the other laws, but it appears as if the law is taken selectively when it meets their belief, besides, Jesus forgave the adulterer in John 8 (although there is a doubt in referring this story to Jesus), and he didn’t need for example to be stoned so that he abrogates stoning the adulterers, plus, the same question still remains, where did Jesus say “I am the sacrifice of the OT”, or anything like that?
Besides, there are many questions concerning that point. Now it is supposed that God wants to give people salvation and forgive them without restricting them with the atonement, what is need that He becomes a man and humiliates Himself when He can just send a lamb as He did with Abraham’s son when He sent a lamb instead of letting himself die for people? The Old Testament didn’t say that the atonement will be God Himself, but in most cases it was a lamb, and He could have easily redeemed people like what He did with Abraham and his son. I see that this is against God’s mightiness, God doesn’t die and doesn’t pain from people who worth compared to His creation. I see this as a blasphemy that shows that God can do nothing except that He Himself dies.
The second thing, who killed Jesus? Were they sinned people who wanted atonement? No, They were the Jews who fought Jesus and killed him as an opposition to his message. So they were not actually giving atonement, they were sinning. How can a sin be an atonement for a sin? An atonement is supposed to be a good deed from a man who repented for his sin not from a man who is sinning by this atonement. So actually I don’t see that this is a sacrifice for love, it is an action with no meaning, like if a man thinks that when he loves another, he expresses his love by killing himself with no need to sacrifice his beloved person.
Christians use Isaiah 53 as a proof that Jesus’ death was foretold in the Bible. First of all, Jesus never quoted from Isaiah 53, and the quotes of the Gospels doesn’t imply that belief, the first quote was in Matthew 8:17, when he was driving the demons out, the second one was in Luke 22:37, when he ordered his disciples to buy swords (this is actually against the prophecy itself, since the prophecy says that he would be as a silent lamb), and the quote was to say that he would be reckoned with transgressors, so in both cases the quotes never mentioned death.
How could Jesus leave the most important things in the prophecy which tell that he would bear their sins which is the main Christian belief, and concentrate on trivial events if he really came for that belief? Actually Jesus (according to the Bible, but we Muslims have nothing to do with this) never thought Isaiah 53 to mean what the Christians understood. Besides, which is more important, is that this prophecy didn’t mean Jesus, if it is read in context, it really doesn’t, this chapter is an extension to chapters 51, 52 which were talking about Israel, and there are scripts in 53 which prove that it doesn’t tell about redemption, see for example this verse:
Isa 53:10 Yet it pleased Jehovah to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of Jehovah shall prosper in his hand.
Of course you know that Jesus (Peace be upon him) didn’t have a seed, you may say it’s spiritually speaking, the case is that the Hebrew word is “zerah” which means a real seed other than the word “ben” which can mean spiritual sonship as in Genesis 15:3-4:
Gen 15:3 And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed(zerah): and, lo, one born(ben) in my house is mine heir. Gen 15:4 And, behold, the word of Jehovah came unto him, saying, This man shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir.
You can see the Hebrew text to make sure, the same thing for prolonging days, this expression in Hebrew, can’t mean everlasting life which doesn’t match with your belief that Jesus is God, the same for the word in verse 1, (servant), according to your belief is that only God can make the sacrifice which doesn’t match with this verse.
Isaiah 53 was foretelling about Israel, and the deliverance from the Babylonian captivity, the word servant refers to Israel in many scripts, and it was used that way commonly in Isaiah, for example in Isaiah 45:4, 48:1-3,….etc. And this can be proved all over the scripts, but it’s very clear that they didn’t mean that belief in salvation.
Actually when we look at the verses Christians use to prove this belief, we find that 95% of these verses are from Paul’s epistles, and the verses used to prove this belief from the Gospels are very few, which puts a question mark on its source and whether Jesus really told that he would die on the cross for our sins.
As I illustrated in my post :”Concept of salvation between Islam and Christianity“we as Muslims don’t need to believe that God needs to be a man or to be crucified for our sins, because God is mightier than that, we actually believe that this is a blasphemy and an insult against God. For sin to be forgiven by God, mans should repent faithfully to God, and acknowledge his sins, and God is the All Forgiver and All Merciful who will forgive him if He really knew he is really intending to repent and stop the sin:
110. And whoso does evil or wrongs his soul, and then asks forgiveness of ALLAH, will find ALLAH Most Forgiving, Merciful. ( Holy Quran 4:110)
No need for all that so that God forgives my sins, and this is what is also said by the Old Testament:
Eze 18:21″But if a wicked person turns away from all his sins that he has committed and keeps all my statutes and does what is just and right, he shall surely live; he shall not die.
Eze 18:22None of the transgressions that he has committed shall be remembered against him; for the righteousness that he has done he shall live.
Jesus (Peace be upon him) wasn’t clear in clarifying his supposed main message, something like this must have been very clear so that no one doubts, but even according to the Gospels, it seems that Jesus didn’t know about it, look at what he said:
Joh 17:4 I glorified thee on the earth, having accomplished the work which thou hast given me to do.
This was before crucifixion, Jesus tells that he accomplished the work God gave to him. This work is to tell people about God, as all prophets did. If he really knew that he came to die for our sins and the plan of salvation Christians talk about it, he won’t have said that he accomplished the work God gave him to do.
Not only that, but when Jesus was asked about the way to eternal life:
Mat 19:16 And behold, one came to him and said, Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why askest thou me concerning that which is good? One there is who is good: but if thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments.
Jesus’ answer was simply to keep the commandments which are the same commandments of the Old Testament, nothing new.
What about Jesus’ action before being crossed?
Mat 26:38 Then saith he unto them, My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death: abide ye here, and watch with me.
Mat 26:39 And he went forward a little, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass away from me: nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou wilt.
If this was really the reason why he came, would have he been that sad and sorrowful? Why would he keep on prayer and asks God to take that cup away from him? If Jesus was supposed to be waiting for that moment, why would he ask God to get it away?
Finally look at what he said on the cross:
Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Jesus accuses God that he left him, as if Jesus was surprised by this or that God betrayed him, is that logical? Doesn’t he know why he is there? Some might argue that this refers to Psalm 22, which Christians might argue that it foretells about the event on the cross. If this was the case, why didn’t Jesus refer to other verses that are strongly used by Christians either in this Psalm or in other verses like in Isaiah 53? This verse actually proves that Jesus didn’t know about the plan of salvation except that God has forsaken him.
Now let’s come to examine the verses used to prove that Jesus died for us, the first verse used is John 3:16, actually there is a doubt in referring this verse to Jesus, look at the TNIV version, the translators ended the quotation at John 3:15, and said in the footnotes that some interpreters put the quotation at 3:21, also you can see Robertson’s Word Picture, this means that there is a diversity concerning referring the most famous verse in the Bible to Jesus (Peace be upon him). This script whom Christians build their belief on. If Jesus was really God, and this was really the reason for his coming, he would have kept on declaring that clearly so that no one doubts in it, but he didn’t, only that verse and there is a diversity concerning who said it. And Where are the other Gospels? This critical belief should have agreed on through the Gospels. besides how would God give His son? And how would he save people? And save them from what? The verse didn’t say all that, and Jesus never answered these questions, Paul only did. All these questions are put supposing that Jesus really said so, but he really didn’t say so, and a belief must be built on a solid ground, otherwise it falls.
The second script used to prove this belief:
Mat 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Actually Jesus was pointing to wine saying this is his blood, and saying that it will be shed for the redemption of sins, but this refers to wine, and it may explain what the Catholic belief concerning saying that wine becomes Jesus’ blood and shedding the blood may refer back to the wine as it is what he refers to from the beginning.
Also there is another verseused to prove this is that one used, which is that Jesus predicted to suffer from the Pharisees and that he will be killed and raised from death, actually I don’t see a relation between this script and the belief that he’d die for us, it only tells that he’d die, but it didn’t say that this will be for our sins.
Something else used as a proof also is that they were giving sacrifices in the Old Testament for forgiving their sins, so Jesus was the sacrifice so that people don’t need to do that anymore, actually this is really weird, because if this was the case, then Christians must fulfill the laws of the Old Testament and leave only that law, but actually they neither obey that law nor the other laws, but it appears as if the law is taken selectively when it meets their belief, besides, Jesus forgave the adulterer in John 8 (although there is a doubt in referring this story to Jesus), and he didn’t need for example to be stoned so that he abrogates stoning the adulterers, plus, the same question still remains, where did Jesus say “I am the sacrifice of the OT”, or anything like that?
Besides, there are many questions concerning that point. Now it is supposed that God wants to give people salvation and forgive them without restricting them with the atonement, what is need that He becomes a man and humiliates Himself when He can just send a lamb as He did with Abraham’s son when He sent a lamb instead of letting himself die for people? The Old Testament didn’t say that the atonement will be God Himself, but in most cases it was a lamb, and He could have easily redeemed people like what He did with Abraham and his son. I see that this is against God’s mightiness, God doesn’t die and doesn’t pain from people who worth compared to His creation. I see this as a blasphemy that shows that God can do nothing except that He Himself dies.
The second thing, who killed Jesus? Were they sinned people who wanted atonement? No, They were the Jews who fought Jesus and killed him as an opposition to his message. So they were not actually giving atonement, they were sinning. How can a sin be an atonement for a sin? An atonement is supposed to be a good deed from a man who repented for his sin not from a man who is sinning by this atonement. So actually I don’t see that this is a sacrifice for love, it is an action with no meaning, like if a man thinks that when he loves another, he expresses his love by killing himself with no need to sacrifice his beloved person.
Christians use Isaiah 53 as a proof that Jesus’ death was foretold in the Bible. First of all, Jesus never quoted from Isaiah 53, and the quotes of the Gospels doesn’t imply that belief, the first quote was in Matthew 8:17, when he was driving the demons out, the second one was in Luke 22:37, when he ordered his disciples to buy swords (this is actually against the prophecy itself, since the prophecy says that he would be as a silent lamb), and the quote was to say that he would be reckoned with transgressors, so in both cases the quotes never mentioned death.
How could Jesus leave the most important things in the prophecy which tell that he would bear their sins which is the main Christian belief, and concentrate on trivial events if he really came for that belief? Actually Jesus (according to the Bible, but we Muslims have nothing to do with this) never thought Isaiah 53 to mean what the Christians understood. Besides, which is more important, is that this prophecy didn’t mean Jesus, if it is read in context, it really doesn’t, this chapter is an extension to chapters 51, 52 which were talking about Israel, and there are scripts in 53 which prove that it doesn’t tell about redemption, see for example this verse:
Isa 53:10 Yet it pleased Jehovah to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of Jehovah shall prosper in his hand.
Of course you know that Jesus (Peace be upon him) didn’t have a seed, you may say it’s spiritually speaking, the case is that the Hebrew word is “zerah” which means a real seed other than the word “ben” which can mean spiritual sonship as in Genesis 15:3-4:
Gen 15:3 And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed(zerah): and, lo, one born(ben) in my house is mine heir. Gen 15:4 And, behold, the word of Jehovah came unto him, saying, This man shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir.
You can see the Hebrew text to make sure, the same thing for prolonging days, this expression in Hebrew, can’t mean everlasting life which doesn’t match with your belief that Jesus is God, the same for the word in verse 1, (servant), according to your belief is that only God can make the sacrifice which doesn’t match with this verse.
Isaiah 53 was foretelling about Israel, and the deliverance from the Babylonian captivity, the word servant refers to Israel in many scripts, and it was used that way commonly in Isaiah, for example in Isaiah 45:4, 48:1-3,….etc. And this can be proved all over the scripts, but it’s very clear that they didn’t mean that belief in salvation.
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